A 38-year-old man develops severe retrosternal chest pain radiating to the back and presents to the emergency department. The pain is aggravated by breathing and movement. He has always been in perfect health but did have a mild upper respiratory tract infection 1 week ago. His cardiogram is shown in Figure below. Which of the following is the most likely cause for his condition?
High-Yield Explanation
The ECG reveals diffuse ST elevation with characteristic concave upward shape and PR depression in the precordial leads. This is more typical of pericarditis than of myocardial infarction. The presentation, symptoms, and age of the patient are all typical for viral pericarditis.