A 46-year-old male presents to OPD with diarrhea and abdominal pain. On investigations, it was found to be non-infective and you proceed with diphenoxylate therapy in this patient. Which of the following is the primary target for the drug you prescribed to this patient?
High-Yield Explanation
Diphenoxylate - is an opioid - it binds to mu receptors in the GIT - works by slowing motility of GIT.