A 35-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after being kicked in the groin while playing football. During physical examination it is noted that the left testicle of the patient is swollen. An MRI examination reveals coagulation of blood in the veins draining the testis. Into which of the following veins would a thrombus most likely pass first from the injured area?
High-Yield Explanation
The left testicular vein drains directly into the left renal vein, which then crosses over the midline to enter the inferior vena cava. The left inferior epigastric, left internal pudendal, and left iliac veins are not involved in the drainage of the testes.