Full 2L QBank
Pathology Male Genital Tract f5db4b2d

A 3-month-old boy is brought to the physician because his parents cannot find one of his testicles. Physical examination confirms the parents' observation. The patient develops a urogenital tumor 30 years later. An abdominal-pelvic CT scan reveals metastases to lumbar periaortic lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely pathologic diagnosis?

A
Leydig cell tumor
B
Malignant lymphoma
C
Renal cell carcinoma
D
Seminoma
High-Yield Explanation
The clinical significance of undescended testes is not related to the abnormal position of the gonad (patients are asymptomatic) but to an increased incidence of infertility and germ cell neoplasia. All men with untreated bilateral cryptorchid testes have azoospermia and are infertile. Unilateral cryptorchidism is associated in 40% of cases with oligospermia. Cryptorchidism is associated with a 20- to 40-fold greater than normal risk for testicular cancer. Conversely, 10% of patients with germ cell neoplasia have cryptorchid testes. Seminoma is the most common germ cell malignancy. The other choices are not complications of cryptorchidism.Diagnosis: Seminoma

Related Pathology MCQs

Practice 2,00,000+ NEET PG Questions Free

Timed mock tests, mistake queue analytics, audio lectures & zero attempt limits on i❤️Exams.

Start Free Mock Test Now