Based upon this coronal CT view of the face in a 25-year-old man with eye pain, what is the MOST likely diagnosis?
High-Yield Explanation
A. There is a depressed orbital floor fracture appreciated on the right with fat herniating through the defect with probable hemorrhage in the right maxillary sinus as evidenced by opacification of the sinus on bone window evaluation. The inferior rectus is also somewhat enlarged likely related to post traumatic edema/hematoma. B. Though one might see opacification of the maxillary sinus in acute sinusitis one would most likely see an intact orbital floor and no defect in the floor. The rectus muscle would not be involved. C. The location of the defect and fat herniating through the defect are consistent with trauma not neoplastic erosion. D. There is no orbital mass appreciated