A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be:
High-Yield Explanation
Answer is B (Prolactinoma): Menstrual cycle disturbance in the form of amenorrhea along with galactorrhea suggests a diagnosis of hyperprolactinemia. Amongst the options provided the tumor most likely to produce above endocrine manifestation is a prolactinoma. Prolactinomas: Most common functional pituitary adenomas Q