A 19-year-old man is having recurrent bleeding occur in his knee when playing contact sports. He has no history of spontaneous bleeding, but his brother has similar problems. Consultation with a specialist reveals that he has "mild" hemophilia A. Which of the following factor abnormalities is consistent with this diagnosis?
High-Yield Explanation
In hemophilia A, there are decreased levels of functioning factor VIII. This can be due to reduced amounts of normal VIII, the presence of a functionally abnormal protein, or a combination of both. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is prolonged, and the prothrombin consumption test is abnormal. The prothrombin time, thrombin clotting time, and bleeding time are usually normal.