A 31 year old patient of schizophrenia who has been taking antipsychotics for 7 years was taken for ophthalmologic examination. The examination reveals presence of retinal pigmentaion. Which of the following is the antipsychotic patient is most likely to be taking-
High-Yield Explanation
Thioridazine is the only antipsychotic drug that causes retinal pigmentation, which in advanced cases may resemble retinitis pigmentosa. The deposits are usually associated with "browning" of vision. Thioridazone also causes : Prolongation of QT interval It has minimum EPS amongst typical anti psychotics. Chlorpromazine therapy : Deposits in the anterior poions of the eye (cornea and lens)