A patient of acute leukemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilaterla fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the management - rpt
High-Yield Explanation
cotrimoxazole is an antibiotic. as the patient is immunocompromised most probable oppounistic infection is fungal infection and X Ray shows fluffy infiltrates suggestive of fungal infection. So antifungals are used. REF:Baveja textbook of microbiology 4th edition