A 19-year-old man has recurrent attacks of gastrointestinal colic and swelling of his face and legs. There is no relationship of the attacks to any foods or activity. His father has a similar syndrome. Which of the following is the most likely cause of death in this disease?
High-Yield Explanation
Hereditary angioedema is an autosomal dominant condition. The lesions are tense, rounded, nonpitting, and several centimeters in diameter. The edema, unlike urticaria, involves deeper tissue and is not pruritic. Edema of the glottis is the usual cause of death.