A 32-year-old female, asymptomatic, not requiring blood transfusion, presents with Hb 13.0 gm/dl. Her HbF levels are 95%, HbA2, 1.5%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis -
High-Yield Explanation
<p>In contrast to alpha thalassemia ,gene deletion rarely ever causes beta thalassemia & is only seen in an entity called hereditary persistence of foetal hemoglobin (HPFH).</p><p>In the given case scenario ,HbA2 is within normal limit (1.5-3.5%) in contrast to thalassemia where the HbA2 will be increased .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 322.</p>