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Gynaecology & Obstetrics Miscellaneous (Obs) c7365daf

A 45-year-old female presents with polymenorrhea for 6 months. On examination nothing abnormal was found. Which of the following is the next best line of management?

A
Give progesterone for 3 cycles
B
Give OCP for 3 cycles
C
Dilation and curettage
D
Hysterectomy
High-Yield Explanation
Ans. C. Dilation and curettagePoly menorrhea - or epimenorrhea, the menstrual cycle is reduced from the normal of 28 days to a cycle of two to three weeks and remain constant at that frequency.Treatment - Dilation and curettage is a most effective short-term method of controlling uterine bleeding longer term treatments will generally be directed towards the cause of the abnormal uterine bleedinga. DUB due to chronic anovulation is treated with cyclic progestin therapy with OCPb. Severe and intractable bleeding of a dysfunctional nature may rarely require hysterectomy

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