A 41-year-old woman is admitted to the obstetrics and gynecology department for a scheduled tubal ligation procedure. Two days postoperatively the patient has a high fever and shows signs of hypovolemic shock. A radiographic examination reveals a large hematoma adjacent to the external iliac artery. Which of the following vessels was most likely injured?
High-Yield Explanation
The ovarian arteries arise from the abdominal aorta, descend retroperitoneally along the posterior abdominal wall, and cross just anterior to the external iliac vessels. The ovarian arteries are the most likely source of blood from a hematoma following a tubal ligation. The ascending and descending uterine arteries and superior and inferior vesicle arteries branch from the internal iliac arteries and are not likely to be the source of blood in this situation.