A 20-year-old man with Marfan syndrome is having back pain. On examination, there is a curvature of his thoracic spine to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
High-Yield Explanation
The major musculoskeletal issue is progressive scoliosis, which is usually treated with physiotherapy and mechanical bracing. Only severe scoliosis is treated with surgery. Vigorous exercise and pregnancy are felt by some experts to increase the rate of aortic root dilatation.