During evaluation of the cause of varicocele in a 36-year-old man, attention is directed to the method of drainage of the left testicular vein, which usually enters which of the following?
High-Yield Explanation
The left testicular vein empties into the left renal vein, and the right testicular vein empties into the IVC. Partial occlusion of the right renal vein is an uncommon cause of varicocele and may signify an associated retroperitoneal malignancy.