A 15-year-old boy presented with fever and chills for the last 3 days. A peripheral blood smear revealed the following. Which of the following is the most probable causative agent?
High-Yield Explanation
The given clinical scenario and the peripheral smear showing the Maurer&;s dots are suggestive of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum. Features of Plasmodium falciparum on peripheral smear are Maurer's dots, ring form, accole form, and banana-shaped gametocytes. Reference: Paniker&;s Textbook of Medical Parasitology 8th edition