A 36-year-old G1P0 woman presents for her first prenatal visit late in her first trimester of pregnancy; she complains of persistent vaginal bleeding, nausea, and pelvic pain. Physical examination is notable for a gravid uterus larger than expected for gestational age. Fetal hea tones are absent. Which of the following is most likely to be true?
High-Yield Explanation
The case senario suggestive of gestational trophoblastic diseases like hydatidiform mole.Because the uterus is more than the period of amenorrhoea and there is vaginal bleeding.So lab investigations revelas beta hcg level higher than..the normal level. Refet page no 168,169 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition.