A 29-year-old patient comes in; he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint of the index finger. His physician determines that he has nerve damage from a supracondylar fracture. Which of the following conditions is also a symptom of this nerve damage?
High-Yield Explanation
Median nerve is injured in supracondylar fracture. It supplies The flexor digitorum profundus muscle flexes the DIP joints of the index and middle fingers sensation over the distal pa of the second digit. The median nerve innervates the thenar muscles. So atrophy of hypothenar muscle will not occur.