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Psychiatry General 948568f8

A 40 yr old female patient present with history of depressed mood, loss of appetite insomnia and no interest in surrounjdings for the past 1 yr. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss 1 yr back. Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient:

A
No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss
B
SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs LI
C
Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the drugs
D
Combination therapy of 2 antidepressant drugs
High-Yield Explanation
C i.e. Antidepressant treatment based on the side effect profile of the drugs

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