A patient of acute leukemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the management?
High-Yield Explanation
The Patient's history of acute leukemia with febrile neutropenia is suggestive of Immunocompromised state The clue to the diagnosis here is fluffy chest infiltrate which are seen in Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. The treatment of choice for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is Cotrimoxazole