A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Question

Accepted Answer

Wide local excision with a 1-cm margin, followed by radiotherapy

Answer

Wide local excision with a 1-cm margin and groin lymph node dissection

Answer

Wide local excision with a 2-cm margin and sentinel lymph node biopsy

Answer

Wide local excision with a 2-cm margin and groin lymph node dissection

A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Related General Medicine MCQs

Practice 2,00,000+ NEET PG Questions Free