A 40 yr old patient with a single kidney presents with a solitary exophytic mass of 4 cm localized at its lower pole. Which amongst the following is the best recommended management option:
High-Yield Explanation
Ans is 'd' i.e. Paial nephrectomy Paial nephrectomy is the preferred surgical approach for a small ( Paial nephrectomy should be considered in the following clinical situations: Renal masses less than 4cm (T1) Localized mass in a patient with a single kidney or with compromised renal function. Synchronous bilateral renal tumors Patients with Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome as they are at high risk of renal cancer in the contralateral kidney