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Surgery General 8add0ee7

A 65 year old white male in previously good health sta to notice blood in his urine. He develops pain with urination. He also thinks that the stream of his urine is weakened. He goes to his family doctor because of his symptoms. Laboratory findings show an anemia. His urinalysis is positive for red cells, white cells and gram negative rods are seen. A cystogram is done and shows a tumor. A transurethral biopsy is done and confirms a malignant bladder tumor. Which of the following is true of this patient's tumor?

A
It is likely to be an adenocarcinoma
B
More commonly presents with a palpable abdominal mass
C
Likely to cause an elevated serum acid phosphatase
D
Is likely to recur after treatment
High-Yield Explanation
Is likely to recur after treatment * Even after treatment, transitional cell cancers of the bladder tend to recur. * Choice (a) is incorrect because about 90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas. * The classic triad: hematuria, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass is associated with renal cell carcinoma, not bladder cancer. * Elevated serum acid phosphatase is seen with prostate cancer, not bladder cancer.

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