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Psychiatry Miscellaneous 87e9f7c5

A 40-year-old female patient presents with history of depressed mood, loss of appetite, insomnia and lock of interest in surroundings for past one year. These symptoms followed soon after a business loss one year back. Which of the following statements is true regarding the management of this patient?

A
No treatment is necessary as it is due to business loss
B
SSRI is the most efficacious of the available drugs
C
Antidepressant treatment is based on the side effect profile of the drug
D
Combination therapy of two antidepressants should be given
High-Yield Explanation
Ans. C. Antidepressant treatment is based on the side effect profile of the drug* The diagnosis in this case is depression. The depression can be precipitated by various stressors, and irrespective of what precipitated it, it should always be treated.* Further, all the available antidepressants have similar efficacy and the choice of antidepressants is usually dictated by the side effect profile the drug.* SSRIs are usually used as the first antidepressants because of their favorable side effect profile.

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