A 26 year woman presents with a palpable thyroid nodule, and needle biopsy demonstrates amyloid in the stroma of the lesion. A cervical lymph node is palpable on the same side as the lesion. Which of the following represents the treatment of choice?
High-Yield Explanation
Treatment of medullary carcinoma of thyroid is total thyroidectomy with either prophylactic or therapeutic resection of the central and bilateral cervical lymph node. In patients with palpable cervical nodes or involved central neck nodes, ipsilateral or bilateral, modified radical neck dissection is recommended. In patients with tumors >1 cm, ipsilateral prophylactic modified radical neck dissection is recommended because >60% of these patients have nodal metastases. Ref: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 38; Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, Page 782