A 75 year of old hypeensive lady has a 2 x 2 cm infiltrating duct cell carcinoma in the subareolar region. There are not palpable lymph nodes and distant metastases. However, she had been treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 20 years ago. The best course of management would be-
High-Yield Explanation
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Modifed radical mastectomy followed by hormone therapy