A 42 year old patient developed acute attack of Asthma. After the management of the acute attack, the patient was referred to the OPD for follow up. Which of the following is not a recommended prophylactic strategy for this patient?
High-Yield Explanation
Histamine alone does not play a significant role in asthma, and antihistaminic drugs are of very little value or of no use. Antigen avoidance is necessary as it is cause of the disease. Montelukast or zafirlukast block the receptors of leukotrienes, which are potent bronchoconstrictors. Phospholipase A2 causes formation of PGs and LTs. So its inhibition by steroids can be helpful in asthmatics.