A previously healthy 45 years old laborer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain and weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true:
High-Yield Explanation
(b) If the neurological signs fail to resolve within 1 week, lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be done- Bowel bladder involvement, increasing neurological deficit or failure of conservative treatment is an indication for surgery. Exercises are contraindicated acute pain and 6 weeks of trial is advised before carrying out surgical intervention.