A female patient presented with depressed mood, loss of appetite and no interest in surroundings. There is associated insomnia. The onset of depression was preceeded by a history of business loss and soon after it she developed the following symptoms for the past one year. True statement regarding management of this patient is?
High-Yield Explanation
SSRI are the drug of choice now . As TCAs have anticholinergic, cardiovascular and neurological side effects. They have low safety margin and have a lag time of 2-4 weeks before anti depressant action manifest. Hence SSRI are used based on side effect profile. ref: K D Tripati 8th ed.