A 67-year-old man presents with sudden left leg pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and a small aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is most likely responsible for development of a cold limb in this patient?
High-Yield Explanation
Embolism of an artery of the leg leads to sudden pain, absence of pulses, and a cold limb. In some cases, the limb must be amputated. None of the other choices would cause this clinical presentation. Ruptured aortic aneurysm (choice E) presents with pain, shock, and a pulsatile mass in the abdomen.Diagnosis: Arterial thromboembolism