Full 2L QBank
Psychiatry Mood Disorders 68b3323a

A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of:-

A
Antipsychotics and antidepressants
B
Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
C
Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers
D
Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
High-Yield Explanation
The patient had a manic episode in past and currently he is in severe depression. The complete diagnosis would be bipolar disorder. hence, this patient should receive both mood stabilizers and antidepressants.

Related Psychiatry MCQs

Practice 2,00,000+ NEET PG Questions Free

Timed mock tests, mistake queue analytics, audio lectures & zero attempt limits on i❤️Exams.

Start Free Mock Test Now