A 55-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain. Upper GI endoscopy and gastric biopsy reveal a neoplastic, lymphocytic infiltrate invading glandular tissue. Giemsa staining is positive for Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
High-Yield Explanation
Diagnosis: Marginal zone lymphoma, MALT lymphoma Marginal Zone Lymphoma is an indolent tumor develop due to chronic B cell stimulation either by H.pylori or Auto immune disorders Translocation (11:18) involved