Which of following is/are false:
High-Yield Explanation
B i.e. Sevoflurane causes seizures, C i.e. Rapid recovery from propofol >> A i.e. Enflurane interacts with sodalime MAC (minimal alveolar concentration) is the best measure of anesthetic potencyQ. Sevoflurane has anticonvulsant propeiesQ with no excitatory phenomenon, no increase in CBF or intracranial pressure. Muscle tone is reduced, potentiating nondepolarizing muscle relaxants. Cerebral 02 demand is decreased. Sevoflurane, isoflurane & desflurane have anticonvulsant propeiesQ. Whereas, the main disadvantage of enflurane is that it often causes epileptiform EEG changesQ (more commonly during hypocapnia) that may persist for several weeks. Cerebral blood flow is doubled at MAC 1 and convulsionsQ occur at MAC2, so it should be used with extreme caution (or avoided) in patients with h/o epilepsy. Muscle relaxation is greater with enflurane than with halothane or isoflurane, enhancing the action of nondepolarizing relaxants. Enflurane interacts with sodalime but produce clinically insignificant amount of carbonmonooxide. Propofol has smooth & rapid induction and rapid recoveryQ. Ketamine is a noncompetitive NMDA (glutamate) receptor antagonistQ and does not act on GABA-A receptor.