A 52 year-old postmenopausal patient has evidence of low bone mineral density. She and her physician are considering therapy with raloxifene or a combination of conjugated estrogens and medroxyprogesterone acetate. Which of the following patient characteristics is MOST likely to lead them to select raloxifene?
High-Yield Explanation
-Raloxifene is a SERM used in post-menopausal osteoporosis due to its agonist action in bone. -It has additional advantage of causing decrease in risk of breast and endometrial cancer due to its estrogen antagonists action at these places. -Major adverse effect of raloxifene is thromboembolism and aggravation of hot flushes of menopause.