A 21 year old girl staed on antipsychotic by a primary care physician, due to a psychotic breakdown. It is noticed that she has developed amenorrhoea, decreased sexual desire and galactorrhoea as an adverse event to the drug. Which of the following dopamine pathway is involved in this adverse event to the drug?
High-Yield Explanation
4 impoant pathways of Dopamine and their impoance Mesocoical pathway Negative symptoms of Schizophrenia Mesolimbic pathway Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia Nigrostriatal pathway Extrapyramidal symptoms Tuberoinfundibular pathway Hyperprolactinemia Prolactin: Anterior pituitary hormone Dopamine inhibits secretion of prolactin through the tuberoinfundibular pathway Through sho loop feedback mechanism, it inhibits its own secretion Hyperprolactinemia secondary to antipsychotic use can explain the amenorrhoea, decreased libido and galactorrhoea Prolactin levels are positively associated with severity of tardive dyskinesia and negative symptoms of schizophrenia