Full 2L QBank
Gynaecology & Obstetrics Operative Obs 4b408967

A 32-year-old second gravida who had an LSCS in her first pregnancy is admitted in labor. The fetus is in the cephalic presentation. The head is engaged. This estimated fetal weight is 3 kg. Uterine contractions are 2 per 10 minutes. The fetal heart rate is 140 bpm. The cervical dilation is 5 cm. The vertex is felt 1 cm above the ischial spines. The posterior fontanelle is felt. Pelvis is adequate. The membranes are intact. What is the best management option?

A
Do an amniotomy and allow labor to progress
B
Do an amniotomy and commence an infusion of oxytocin
C
Perform a cesarean section
D
Perform a ventous delivery in the second stage
High-Yield Explanation
Ans. is a, i.e. Do an amniotomy and allow progress of laborIn this case, all findings are suitable to allow VBAC. This patient is 5 cm dilated. Contractions are 2 in 10 minutes i.e. inadequate. Adequate contractions are 3 in 10 minutes. Hence logically augmentation of labor should be done. In previous LSCS patients augmentation should be done by doing ARM i.e. amniotomy and oxytocin should best be avoided.

Related Gynaecology & Obstetrics MCQs

Practice 2,00,000+ NEET PG Questions Free

Timed mock tests, mistake queue analytics, audio lectures & zero attempt limits on i❤️Exams.

Start Free Mock Test Now