A 29-year-old female diagnosed with AIDS has been suffering from a progressive blurring of vision in her right eye. On funduscopic examination, a small white opaque lesion is noted on the retina of her right eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this patient?
High-Yield Explanation
This patient is most likely suffering from cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis. The best drug treatment for this infection is ganciclovir. Acyclovir is not effective in CMV infections. It is used more for HSV type 1 and 2 infections. Amantadine is used either therapeutically or prophylactically for the influenza A virus. Flucytosine is an antifungal agent. Ref: Safrin S. (2012). Chapter 49. Antiviral Agents. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e.