A 32-year-old female presents with pain in the right lower iliac fossa. Rebound tenderness is positive in this patient. She was diagnosed with appendicitis and was operated under general anesthesia. Postoperative lab findings showed increased levels of transaminases with the absence of increased bilirubin. Which of the following agent is most likely responsible for the elevation of the enzymes?
High-Yield Explanation
Answer: b) HalothaneHalothane is responsible for the increase in the serum transaminases postoperatively in this case. There are two types of hepatotoxicity associated with halothane administration.Type IType II* Benign, self-limiting, and common.* Transaminases levels are mildly increased, without evidence of jaundice.* This is due to reductive biotransformation of halothane.* It is fulminant and rare.* It is immune-mediated.* Associated with centrilobular liver necrosis.* Clinically, it presents with fever, jaundice, and grossly elevated serum transaminase levels.* Has significant mortality rate.