A 46-year-old male presents to OPD with diarrhea and abdominal pain. On ivestigations, it was found to be non-infective and you proceed with diphenoxylate therapy in this patient. Which of the following is the primary target for the drug you prescribed to this patient?
High-Yield Explanation
(Ref: Katzung 11/e p1080-1081) Diphenoxylate is an opioid; it binds to mu receptors in the GIT and slows motility.