A 48-year-old man presents for a routine physical examination. The patient has a history of hyperlipidemia and nodular prostatic hyperplasia. Physical examination reveals a large mass on the lateral side of the scrotum, which can be transilluminated. It is found to be composed of dilated blood vessels draining the left testicle. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
High-Yield Explanation
Varicocele is considered a common cause of male infertility and oligospermia, although it is not clear why the dilation of veins should have such consequences. Testicular atrophy is found only rarely and only in long-standing disease. Surgical resection of varicocele by ligation of the internal spermatic vein often improves reproductive function. Varicocele is not associated with neoplasia (choices A, B, and E) or prostatic hyperplasia (choice D).Diagnosis: Varicocele