A patient with acute leukaemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the management
High-Yield Explanation
Cotrimoxazole is an antibiotic. As the patient is immunocompromised, most probable oppounistic infection is a fungal infection. And X-Ray shows fluffy infiltrates is suggestive of fungal infection. So antifungals are to be added. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition