A 55 years old female comes to the eye casualty with history of severe eye pain, redness and diminution of vision. On examination, the visual acuity is 6/60, there is circumcorneal congestion, corneal oedema and a shallow anterior chamber. Which of the following is the best drug of choice?
High-Yield Explanation
Ans is 'b' i.e., I.V. Mannitol