A 35 year old female P3 + 0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Which of the following would be the best initial management?
High-Yield Explanation
The preferred initial treatment however is Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP). LEEP has become the procedure of choice for management of CIN II and CIN III'. This 35 year old women has apparently completed her family (P3 + 0) and hence hysterectomy may be considered as the treatment of choice. But William's gynaecology states that 'Hysterectomy' is unacceptable as primary therapy for CIN I, 2, or 3'. Ref: William's Gynaecology, 1st Edition, Page 634; Danfoh's Obstetrics and Gynaecology, 10th Edition, Page 1000; Colposcopy and Treatment of Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia: A Beginner's Manual By John W. Sellors, Rengaswamy Sankaranarayanan, Chapter 13; Jeffcoate's Principles of Gynaecology, 7th Edition, Page 421