An 18-year-old sexually active college student presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain and irregular bleeding for five days. She has no fever. She uses oral contraceptives as method of bih control. Upon examination, the cervix is friable, there is cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness. The pregnancy test is negative. Which is the most likely etiologic agent responsible for these findings?
High-Yield Explanation
Chlamydia trachomatis is frequently repoed bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD). Infections of the cervixmay present as a friable cervix, but are most often without signs or symptoms. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused by chlamydia often presents with milder symptoms than when it is caused by gonorrhea. Prompt treatment reduces the occurrence of long-term sequelae such as infeility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain. The risk of infeility appears to be higher for chlamydial infections compared to any other STD. Screening women is impoant to reduce the risk of PID and its sequelae.