An 70 year old lady who had previously had a few attacks of dizziness, fell and broke her hip. She was found to have slow pulse, ECG was performed. Which is the next best step for management of this patient?
High-Yield Explanation
Image shows ventricular rate of 30/min with no relation between P waves and qRS complexes. QRS complexes are broad indicating origin from the ventricle and presence of escape rhythm. All these findings indicate presence of complete hea block. She needs a permanent pacemaker. However in the current circumstances she needs ohopaedic surgery --> to reduce moality -> temporary pacemaker should be the next best step.