A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency room with several red, swollen, tender bite wounds on both arms that he stated occurred yesterday when he rescued his dog from a dogfight involving three other dogs, whose owner(s) is unknown. His right wrist and left elbow are also swollen and there is axillary lymphadenopathy on the left side. Gram stain of purulent material from the worst wound shows small gram-negative pleomorphic coccobacilli. The patient reports his last tetanus vaccination was 2 years ago. In addition to antibiotics, which of the following should be included in this patient's treatment?
High-Yield Explanation
The patient has bite wounds most likely infected with Pasteurella multocida. Since the wounds were caused by dogs whose owners were unknown, the patient should also begin rabies prophylaxis (c). There is no need for varicella-zoster prophylaxis (e) since there is no history of shingles at this time. The patient is up to date on his tetanus immunization, so tetanus prophylaxis is not needed either (d). IV immunoglobulins (nonspecific) (b) are used to treat patients with IgG deficiency. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) prophylaxis is not needed unless the bites were inflicted by a human whose HBV status was unknown and could not be determined.